Skip to content
K Knidox Search…
Economics · Trade

Purchasing Power Parity

The exchange rate prices imply, and the one inflation predicts — against the market rate.

Work out parity
The one you are pricing in.
What the market actually charges today.
The same good or basket in both places.
Implied PPP rate
0.6134GBP/USD

The rate that would make both prices equal

GBP is
−22.36%Undervalued

against USD on this basket

Real exchange rate
1.288

1 means parity holds

At the market rate, the GBP 3.49 abroad converts to USD 4.4177 — cheaper than the 5.69 at home. Parity would need 0.6134 GBP per USD; the market gives 0.79, so GBP is undervalued by 22.36% — equivalently USD is overvalued by 28.8%.

Purchasing power parity says the same good should cost the same everywhere once converted. Divide the two prices to get the implied rate and compare it with the market. A basket at 5.69 at home and 3.49 abroad implies 0.6134, so a market rate of 0.79 leaves the foreign currency 22.4% undervalued.

One good, two currencies

The logic starts from arbitrage. If an identical, easily traded good were cheaper abroad, buyers would shift there, bidding up its price and the currency needed to buy it, until the gap closed. The exchange rate at which the gap is exactly zero is the implied PPP rate: the foreign price divided by the home price.

Comparing that with the market rate gives the valuation. Where parity would need only 0.6134 units of the foreign currency per unit of home currency but the market charges 0.79, the foreign currency is trading below what its purchasing power warrants — it is undervalued, by 22.4%. The same gap read the other way makes the home currency overvalued by 28.8%; the two figures differ because a percentage is not symmetric under inversion.

Relative PPP asks a different question

Absolute PPP is about the level of the exchange rate and rarely holds. Relative PPP is about its change, and holds up much better: the currency of the higher-inflation country should depreciate by roughly the inflation gap. That version survives the objections about baskets and local costs, because those distortions largely cancel when you look at changes rather than levels.

implied rate = Pforeign ÷ Phome     expected change ≈ πforeign − πhome

rates quoted as foreign currency per unit of home currency

  1. 1
    Price the same thing in both places. A basket costing 5.69 at home and 3.49 abroad, each in its own currency.
  2. 2
    Divide to get the implied rate. 3.49 ÷ 5.69 = 0.6134 foreign units per home unit — the rate that would equalise the two prices.
  3. 3
    Compare with the market. The market gives 0.79, which is higher, so the foreign currency is cheaper than parity says it should be.
  4. 4
    Turn the gap into a percentage. 0.6134 ÷ 0.79 − 1 = −22.4%, so the foreign currency is undervalued by 22.4%.
  5. 5
    Sanity-check by converting. The 3.49 abroad converts to 4.42 at home against 5.69 there — cheaper abroad, which is what undervaluation means in practice.

Where the inflation shortcut breaks down

Expected change in the home currency over one year, exact against the subtract-the-rates shortcut.

Home inflationForeign inflationExact changeShortcutGap
2%2%0.00%0.00%0.00 pp
3%5%+1.94%+2.00%0.06 pp
10%2%−7.27%−8.00%0.73 pp
60%3%−35.63%−57.00%21.37 pp
100%5%−47.50%−95.00%47.50 pp

Why parity fails in practice

Most of what you buy never crosses a border. A haircut, a bus fare and a restaurant meal are produced and consumed locally, so no arbitrage forces their prices into line — and they make up a large share of any real basket. This produces the Balassa–Samuelson effect: rich countries have higher productivity in traded goods, which pulls up wages economy-wide, which pushes up the price of non-traded services. Poorer countries therefore look systematically undervalued on PPP, not because their currencies are mispriced but because their haircuts are genuinely cheaper.

Tariffs, transport, taxes and brand pricing add more wedges, and none of them are errors to be corrected. This is why PPP comparisons of currencies are better read as a rough gauge of whether something is unusually far from parity than as a forecast, and why the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank use PPP conversion rather than market rates when comparing living standards across countries.

The table above shows a separate trap, in the arithmetic rather than the economics. The classroom shortcut of subtracting inflation rates comes from an approximation that drops a cross term, and that term is negligible at low inflation and enormous at high inflation — off by half a percentage point at 10% inflation, and by 47 percentage points at 100%. Where inflation is high, use the exact ratio (1 + π_foreign) ÷ (1 + π_home), which is what this page computes.

What is purchasing power parity?
The idea that a given basket of goods should cost the same in two countries once converted at the exchange rate. The rate that makes this true is the implied PPP rate: the foreign price divided by the home price.
How do I tell whether a currency is overvalued?
Compare the implied PPP rate with the market rate. If the market gives more foreign currency per unit of home currency than parity requires, the foreign currency is undervalued and the home currency overvalued.
What is the difference between absolute and relative PPP?
Absolute PPP is about the level of the exchange rate and rarely holds. Relative PPP is about its change — the higher-inflation currency should depreciate by roughly the inflation gap — and holds up considerably better.
Why does PPP fail so often?
Because most spending is on things that cannot be traded across borders — rent, haircuts, local services. No arbitrage forces their prices into line, so a large part of any real basket is outside the mechanism entirely.
What is the Balassa–Samuelson effect?
Richer countries are more productive in traded goods, which raises wages throughout the economy and so raises the price of non-traded services. Poorer countries therefore look systematically undervalued on PPP without anything being mispriced.
Can I just subtract the inflation rates?
At low inflation, yes — the error is a fraction of a percentage point. At high inflation it collapses: with 100% at home against 5% abroad, the shortcut says −95% while the exact answer is −47.5%.
Why do the two valuation percentages differ?
Because percentages are not symmetric under inversion. A foreign currency 22.4% undervalued corresponds to a home currency 28.8% overvalued, since 1 ÷ 0.7764 is 1.288 rather than 1.224.